In this article we’ll cover all you need to prep for the Texas Life and Health Insurance exam including:
- General concepts
- Tips and Strategies to succeed during the exam
- Exam questions with answers and explanations
A crucial component of contemporary life, insurance protects people and organizations financially against unforeseeable dangers and occurrences. Two essential divisions of the insurance market, life and health insurance, provide protection for events involving the lives and well-being of people. This introduction seeks to give a general overview of life and health insurance, outlining important ideas, the function of insurance brokers, and the significance of getting the right coverage.
Understanding Insurance Concepts
The idea of risk transfer and risk pooling underpins insurance operations. Premiums are paid by policyholders to an insurance provider in exchange for protection from particular risks or occurrences. While health insurance covers medical costs and associated hazards, life insurance covers the risk of the potential loss of life. These premiums are gathered into a fund that can be used to reimburse persons who suffer losses that are covered.
Roles and Responsibilities of Insurance Agents
The distribution of insurance coverage depends heavily on insurance agents. They serve as a liaison between insurance firms and customers. Agents offer useful information, assist clients in choosing appropriate plans, clarify terms and conditions, and streamline the purchasing process. Agents also help with claims, renewals, and changes to policies. To successfully meet the needs of their clients, agents must possess a thorough awareness of insurance products, industry rules, and ethical considerations.
It’s crucial to understand the basic ideas and rules that underpin this industry as you start your path to become a certified life and health insurance agent. The other chapters of this study guide will go into greater detail about numerous life and health insurance topics, such as policy types, rules, underwriting, policy clauses, health insurance plans, contracts, premiums, benefits, annuities, retirement plans, ethics, and key vocabulary. You’ll be well-equipped to pass the Life and Health Insurance License Exam and launch a lucrative career in insurance if you master these subjects.
Effective Tips and Strategies to Pass the Life and Health Insurance Licensing Exam
The Life and Health Insurance Licensing Exam preparation process calls for a combination of information, study methods, and test-taking tactics. The following recommendations can help vou perform well on the test:
- Understand the Exam Format: Learn the format of the exam, the amount of questions, the time allotted, and the passing score. You’ll feel less anxious and be able to use your time more efficiently throughout the test if you know what to expect.
- Review Study Materials: Make use of reliable study tools like practice tests, study guides, and textbooks. These materials cover the necessary material and explain difficult ideas.
- Create a Study Schedule: Make sure your study timetable allots enough time to cover all the material. To prevent burnout, divide your study time into reasonable chunks.
- Focus on essential Concepts: Recognize the essential terms, ideas, and concepts that the exam syllabus emphasizes. Focus on fully comprehending these foundational concepts.
- Take practice tests: To simulate the testing setting, practice tests are essential. They assist you in managing time, becoming accustomed to the uestion style, and pinpointing your areas for development.
- Analyze Practice Results: Review your responses, both correct and incorrect, after each Practice Exam. Recognize the justification for the proper responses and draw lessons from your errors.
- Use flashcards: Make flashcards for crucial phrases, definitions, and ideas. Your memory will be strengthened if you review these flashcards on a regular basis.
- Teach the Material: Clarifying ideas for someone else, even if it’s just you, helps you comprehend them better. You are compelled to articulate and clarify difficult concepts when teaching the content.
- Stay Organized: Organize your study materials, notes, and resources. When you need to review particular subjects, doing so will save you time and ease vour tension.
- Seek Clarification: If you come across complex ideas, don’t be afraid to ask your teachers, mentors, or internet forums for clarification. Gaining new insight can help with comprehending.
- Prioritize Weak Areas: Determine the areas in which you are having trouble, and spend more time learning and practicing those subjects.
- Take Breaks: Taking breaks helps you stay focused and avoid burnout. You may be better able to retain information if you take brief pauses between study sessions.
- Maintain a healthy lifestyle by getting adequate sleep, eating a balanced food, and exercising. A strong mind is supported by a healthy body.
- Use mnemonics and memory aids to your advantage. Mnemonics and memory aids can assist you in remembering difficult facts and calculations.
- Simulate Exam Conditions: When taking practice exams, attempt to accurately simulate exam circumstances. Eliminate distractions, sit at a desk, and set a timer.
- Stay Calm on Exam Day: Be sure to come early, take a few deep breaths, and maintain your composure. Do your best and have faith in your preparedness.
Always keep in mind that passing the Life and Health Insurance Licensing Exam requires a combination of thorough knowledge, efficient study techniques, and self- assurance. Maintain a good outlook and go into the exam with a strong determination.
Practice Questions and Answers (Texas Life And Health Insurance Exam)
Let’s get strarted. Over 100 real exam questions with answers, and explanations. Learn smarter.
What type of insurance covers a policyholder’s medical expenses and provides financial protection against unexpected medical costs?
- A. Auto Insurance
- B. Homeowners Insurance
- C. Health Insurance
- D. Travel Insurance
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Health insurance covers a policyholder’s medical expenses and provides financial protection against unexpected medical costs. This type of insurance is essential to ensure that individuals have access to necessary healthcare without incurring catastrophic expenses.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a deductible in an insurance policy?
- A. The maximum amount the insured person pays out of pocket before insurance coverage kicks in.
- B. The premium paid by the insured to the insurance company.
- C. The amount the insurance company pays to the insured in case of a covered loss.
- D. The fee paid to the insurance agent for facilitating the policy purchase.
The correct answer is A. Explanation: The maximum amount the insured person pays out of pocket before insurance coverage kicks in." A deductible in an insurance policy serves as a threshold that the policyholder must meet before the insurance coverage starts to pay for covered losses. It is essentially the initial financial responsibility of the insured in the event of a claim. Once the deductible amount is paid by the insured, the insurance company begins covering the remaining eligible costs, thereby providing a balance between the policyholder’s financial responsibility and the insurer’s liability.
Which of the following is a key feature of a whole life insurance policy?
- A. It provides coverage for a specific term.
- B. Premiums may vary based on market conditions.
- C. It offers an investment component that grows over time.
- D. It covers only accidental deaths.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: A key feature of a whole life insurance policy is that it offers an investment component that grows over time. Whole life insurance policies include a cash value component that accumulates over the life of the policy. This cash value serves as an investment and savings account, gradually increasing over time. Policyholders can access this cash value through withdrawals or loans, making it an attractive long-term financial planning tool. This feature distinguishes whole life insurance from term life insurance, which lacks this investment component.
In insurance terms, what does the term “underwriting” refer to?
- A. The process of purchasing insurance online.
- B. The process of investigating and evaluating the risk of insuring a person or property.
- C. The process of submitting a claim to the insurance company.
- D. The process of canceling an insurance policy.
The correct answer is B. Explanation: In insurance terms, the term “underwriting” refers to the process of investigating and evaluating the risk of insuring a person or property. Underwriters assess various factors to determine the level of risk associated with providing insurance coverage. These factors include the applicant’s health, lifestyle, and the value or condition of the property to be insured. Based on their evaluation, underwriters decide whether to approve the insurance application and at what premium rate. It’s a crucial step in the insurance industry to ensure that policies are priced appropriately based on the level of risk involved.
Which type of insurance provides coverage for damage to a person’s own vehicle as a result of an accident?
- A. Liability Insurance
- B. Health Insurance
- C. Collision Insurance
- D. Homeowners Insurance
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Collision insurance is the type of insurance that provides coverage for damage to a person’s own vehicle as a result of an accident. This means that if you are involved in a car accident, collision insurance will help cover the cost of repairing or replacing your vehicle, regardless of who was at fault in the accident. It’s an essential coverage option for individuals who want financial protection for their own vehicle in addition to liability coverage, which covers damage to other people’s property.
What is the purpose of the “elimination period” in a disability insurance policy?
- A. The time during which the insured person is not covered by the policy.
- B. The period when the policyholder can cancel the policy without penalties.
- C. The time after a claim is submitted during which the insurance company reviews the claim.
- D. The waiting period before disability benefits are paid out after a covered event occurs
The correct answer is D. Explanation: The “elimination period” in a disability insurance policy serves as a waiting period before disability benefits are paid out after a covered event occurs. During this time, the policyholder is responsible for their own financial support. It acts as a deductible period, and once it’s completed, the insurance company begins to provide benefits to the insured individual. This waiting period is designed to ensure that disability insurance is primarily intended for more extended or serious disabilities, rather than short-term illnesses or injuries.
Which federal program provides health insurance for individuals aged 65 and older, as well as certain younger people with disabilities?
- A. Medicaid
- B. CHIP (Children’s Health Insurance Program)
- C. Medicare
- D. Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI)
The correct answer is C. Explanation: The federal program that provides health insurance for individuals aged 65 and older, as well as certain younger people with disabilities, is Medicare. Medicare helps cover various medical expenses and is an essential healthcare program for seniors and eligible individuals with disabilities in the United States.
Which of the following is not typically covered by a standard homeowner’s insurance policy?
- A. Damage from a fire
- B. Theft of personal belongings
- C. Flood damage
- D. Liability for injuries on the property
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Flood damage is typically not covered by a standard homeowner’s insurance policy. While homeowner’s insurance policies generally provide coverage for a range of perils, including damage from fires, theft of personal belongings, and liability for injuries on the property, they often exclude coverage for flood-related damage. Homeowners interested in flood coverage typically need to purchase a separate flood insurance policy through the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) or a private insurer specializing in flood insurance.
What is the primary purpose of an annuity?
- A. To provide life insurance coverage
- B. To pay for medical expenses
- C. To generate retirement income
- D. To cover funeral expenses
The correct answer is C. Explanation: The primary purpose of an annuity is to generate retirement income. An annuity is a financial product that is typically used as part of retirement planning. It allows individuals to invest a lump sum of money or make periodic payments to an insurance company, and in return, the insurance company provides regular payments back to the individual, often in the form of periodic income payments during retirement. This can help individuals ensure they have a steady source of income to support their retirement lifestyle. Annuities are not designed for life insurance coverage, medical expenses, or covering funeral expenses.
Which of the following is a characteristic of term life insurance?
- A. It provides coverage for the entire lifetime of the insured.
- B. It includes a cash value component that grows over time.
- C. It offers fixed premium payments for a specific period.
- D. It is primarily an investment tool.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: A characteristic of term life insurance is that it offers fixed premium payments for a specific period. Term life insurance provides coverage for a specified term or duration, such as 10, 20, or 30 years. During this period, the insured pays a regular premium, and if the insured passes away during the term, the insurance company pays out a death benefit to the beneficiary. However, unlike permanent life insurance policies, term life insurance does not include a cash value component that grows over time, and it does not provide coverage for the entire lifetime of the insured. It is primarily designed to provide financial protection for a specific period.
What type of insurance is designed to cover a specific period of time and pays out a death benefit only if the insured passes away during that time frame?
A. Whole Life Insurance B. Term Life Insurance C. Universal Life Insurance D. Variable Life Insurance
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Term Life Insurance is designed to cover a specific period of time and pays out a death benefit only if the insured passes away during that time frame. This type of insurance provides coverage for a predetermined term, such as 10, 20, or 30 years. If the insured individual dies within the term of the policy, the insurance company pays a death benefit to the designated beneficiary. Term life insurance is often chosen for its affordability and straightforward coverage, making it suitable for individuals who want to provide financial protection for their loved ones during a particular phase of life or for specific financial obligations. Unlike whole life or universal life insurance, term life insurance does not build cash value or provide coverage for the insured’s entire lifetime.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) health insurance plan?
- A. Requires a referral from a primary care physician to see a specialist.
- B. Offers out-of-network coverage without any additional cost.
- C. Allows members to visit any healthcare provider without restrictions.
- D. Offers coverage for a wide range of alternative therapies.
The correct answer is A. Explanation: A characteristic of a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) health insurance plan is that it typically requires a referral from a primary care physician (PCP) to see a specialist. In an HMO, members are usually required to select a PCP who serves as their primary point of contact for medical care. If a member needs to see a specialist, they must first obtain a referral from their PCP. This referral system helps manage and coordinate healthcare services while controlling costs within the network of approved healthcare providers. It ensures that members receive appropriate and necessary specialist care while maintaining the overall efficiency of the healthcare system.
What is the main purpose of a beneficiary designation in an insurance policy?
- A. To specify the insurance company’s payout process.
- B. To determine the amount of the premium payment.
- C. To indicate the policy’s coverage period.
- D. To identify who will receive the policy’s death benefit.
The correct answer is D. Explanation: The main purpose of a beneficiary designation in an insurance policy is to identify who will receive the policy’s death benefit. When an individual purchases an insurance policy, they have the option to name one or more beneficiaries who will be entitled to receive the proceeds of the policy in the event of the insured person’s death. This designation ensures that the intended individuals or entities receive the financial protection provided by the policy, such as family members, loved ones, or organizations. It is a critical aspect of life insurance and other types of insurance policies to specify the recipients of the benefits.
Which of the following types of insurance provides coverage for damage to someone else’s property or for injuries to others caused by the policyholder’s actions?
- A. Liability Insurance
- B. Disability Insurance
- C. Collision Insurance
- D. Comprehensive Insurance
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Liability Insurance provides coverage for damage to someone else’s property or for injuries to others caused by the policyholder’s actions. This type of insurance is designed to protect the policyholder from financial responsibility in case they are held liable for causing harm or damage to others. It typically covers legal expenses, medical bills, and property damage costs incurred by third parties due to the policyholder’s actions or negligence. Liability insurance is essential for individuals and businesses to safeguard their assets and finances in case of unforeseen accidents or legal claims.
In health insurance, what does the term “co-payment” refer to?
- A. The total amount that the insured person is responsible for paying out of pocket.
- B. The percentage of covered expenses that the insured person pays after meeting the deductible.
- C. A fixed amount that the insured person pays for each covered healthcare service or prescription.
- D. The maximum amount of expenses that the insurance company will cover in a year.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: In health insurance, the term “co-payment” (often abbreviated as “co-pay”) refers to a fixed amount that the insured person is required to pay for each covered healthcare service or prescription. It is a specific out-of-pocket cost that the policyholder must contribute at the time of receiving medical care. Co-payments are typically defined in the insurance policy and can vary depending on the type of service or medication. They are designed to share the cost of healthcare between the insurance company and the insured individual, making healthcare more affordable and predictable for policyholders.
Which government program provides financial assistance for medical and hospital expenses to low-income individuals and families?
- A. Medicare
- B. Social Security
- C. Medicaid
- D. Veterans Affairs (VA) Benefits
The correct answer is C. Explanation: The correct answer is C. Medicaid. Medicaid is a government program that provides financial assistance for medical and hospital expenses to low-income individuals and families. It is jointly funded by federal and state governments and helps cover healthcare costs for those who meet income and eligibility criteria. Medicaid plays a crucial role in ensuring that vulnerable populations have access to necessary medical services and can receive the care they need without facing significant financial burdens.
Which of the following statements is true about a Roth IRA?
- A. Contributions are tax-deductible.
- B. Withdrawals are always subject to income tax.
- C. Earnings grow tax-free, and qualified withdrawals are tax-free.
- D. It is a type of employer-sponsored retirement plan.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: A Roth IRA is a type of individual retirement account where contributions are made with after-tax dollars, and the earnings on those contributions can grow tax-free. This makes Roth IRAs an attractive option for tax-efficient retirement savings.
What is the purpose of the “free look” period in an insurance policy?
- A. It allows the policyholder to change the beneficiaries at any time.
- B. It permits the policyholder to cancel the policy and receive a full refund.
- C. It provides an opportunity for the policyholder to review the policy after purchase.
- D. It grants the policyholder access to free insurance coverage for a limited time.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: The “free look” period in an insurance policy allows the policyholder to review the policy after purchase. During this period, the policyholder can examine the terms and conditions of the policy in detail. If they are not satisfied with the policy, they can cancel it and receive a full refund of the premiums paid, making it a consumer protection feature.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a 401 (k) retirement plan?
- A. Contributions are made with after-tax income.
- B. Withdrawals before age 59½ are penalty-free.
- C. Employers do not contribute to the plan.
- D. It is available only to government employees.
The correct answer is B. Explanation: A characteristic of a 401(k) retirement plan is that withdrawals before age 59½ are penalty-free. This means that individuals can access their retirement savings without incurring the usual early withdrawal penalties that often apply to other retirement accounts. However, regular income tax may still apply to these withdrawals.
What is the primary purpose of long-term care insurance?
- A. To cover medical expenses in case of a serious illness.
- B. To provide financial support to beneficiaries upon the insured’s death.
- C. To cover expenses related to daily living assistance for an extended period.
- D. To provide coverage for a specific term, typically 10-20 years.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: The primary purpose of long-term care insurance is to cover expenses related to daily living assistance for an extended period. This type of insurance is designed to help policyholders pay for the costs associated with long-term care services, such as nursing home care, in-home care, and assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs) as they age or in the event of a chronic illness. It helps provide financial support to ensure individuals receive the necessary care and support without depleting their savings or assets.
Which type of insurance provides coverage for medical expenses and loss of income resulting from accidents?
- A. Disability Insurance
- B. Dental Insurance
- C. Long-Term Care Insurance
- D. Vision Insurance
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Disability insurance provides coverage for medical expenses and loss of income resulting from accidents. This type of insurance is designed to replace a portion of your income if you become disabled and are unable to work due to an injury or illness. It helps ensure that you can continue to meet your financial obligations and cover medical expenses while you recover from the disability. Disability insurance provides valuable financial protection in case of unexpected accidents or health issues that may prevent you from working and earning an income.
What does the term “cash value” refer to in a permanent life insurance policy?
- A. The amount of money the policyholder receives upon the death of the insured.
- B. The amount of money the policyholder can borrow against the policy.
- C. The annual premium payment for the policy.
- D. The total amount of coverage provided by the policy.
The correct answer is B. Explanation: The term “cash value” in a permanent life insurance policy refers to the amount of money the policyholder can borrow against the policy. Permanent life insurance policies, such as whole life or universal life insurance, typically build up a cash value over time. This cash value can be accessed by the policyholder through policy loans or withdrawals, providing a source of funds that can be used for various purposes, such as emergencies or financial needs. It’s an additional benefit of permanent life insurance policies that can offer flexibility and financial security to the policyholder.
In health insurance, what is the purpose of a “network”?
- A. It refers to the group of people covered by the same policy.
- B. It is the list of healthcare providers and facilities covered by the insurance plan.
- C. It represents the total amount the insured person is responsible for paying.
- D. It indicates the portion of the medical bill the insurance company pays.
The correct answer is B. Explanation: In health insurance, the purpose of a “network” is to represent the list of healthcare providers and facilities that are covered by the insurance plan. When a policyholder seeks medical services within the network, the insurance plan typically covers a larger portion of the expenses, making it more cost-effective for the insured person. This network ensures that policyholders have access to a defined set of healthcare providers and facilities, which can help control costs and maintain quality standards within the healthcare system. Going outside of the network may result in higher out-of-pocket costs for the insured individual.
Which of the following is a type of managed care health insurance plan that combines features of both HMOs and PPOs?
- A. Medicare
- B. Medicaid
- C. POS (Point of Service) Plan
- D. FSA (Flexible Spending Account)
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Explanation: A POS (Point of Service) plan is a type of managed care health insurance plan that combines features of both HMOs (Health Maintenance Organizations) and PPOs (Preferred Provider Organizations). In a POS plan, policyholders have the flexibility to choose healthcare providers both inside and outside the plan’s network. However, to receive the highest level of coverage and lower out-of-pocket costs, they typically need a referral from their primary care physician (PCP) to see specialists. This plan offers a balance between cost control and flexibility in choosing healthcare providers.
What does COBRA (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) provide for individuals who lose their job-based health insurance?
- A. It offers free healthcare services for a limited time.
- B. It extends unemployment benefits for a longer period.
- C. It allows individuals to continue their health insurance coverage for a certain period after job loss.
- D. It provides financial compensation to cover medical expenses.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: COBRA (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) provides individuals who lose their job-based health insurance with the option to continue their existing health insurance coverage for a specified period. This allows them to maintain coverage for themselves and their eligible dependents, although they may be required to pay the full premium cost, including the portion previously covered by their employer. COBRA helps individuals bridge the gap in health coverage during transitional periods, such as job loss or other qualifying events.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) health insurance plan?
- A. It requires members to choose a primary care physician.
- B. It only covers medical emergencies.
- C. It offers lower out-of-pocket costs for using in-network healthcare providers.
- D. It does not cover prescription medications.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: A Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) health insurance plan offers lower out-of-pocket costs when members use in-network healthcare providers. This means that individuals who seek medical services from healthcare providers within the plan’s network typically pay less for their care compared to out-of-network providers. PPO plans provide flexibility by allowing members to see specialists or visit healthcare facilities without requiring a referral from a primary care physician, making them a popular choice for those who want a balance between choice and cost savings.
What is the purpose of a life insurance policy’s “grace period”?
- A. It extends the coverage period of the policy for an additional term.
- B. It allows the policyholder to reduce the coverage amount.
- C. It provides a period of time after the premium due date to pay the premium without losing coverage.
- D. It offers a discount on the policy premium for early payment.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: A life insurance policy’s “grace period” serves as a buffer after the premium due date during which the policyholder can make a late premium payment without the risk of losing coverage. This period provides policyholders with some flexibility, allowing them to maintain their life insurance coverage even if they miss the payment deadline. Typically, the policy remains in force during this grace period, ensuring that beneficiaries would still receive the death benefit if the insured person were to pass away within that timeframe. It’s an essential feature to prevent unintentional lapses in coverage due to missed payments.
Which type of insurance covers damage to a person’s personal property in the event of a fire, theft, or other covered perils?
- A. Liability Insurance
- B. Health Insurance
- C. Homeowners Insurance
- D. Umbrella Insurance
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Homeowners Insurance is the type of insurance that covers damage to a person’s personal property in the event of various covered perils such as fires, theft, vandalism, or certain natural disasters. This coverage extends not only to the physical structure of the insured’s home but also to their personal belongings inside the home. In case of covered incidents, homeowners can file claims to receive compensation for the repair or replacement of damaged or stolen property, making it a crucial policy for protecting one’s assets and securing their financial well-being.
In a universal life insurance policy, what does the policyholder have the flexibility to do?
- A. Change the beneficiaries only once during the policy term.
- B. Decrease the death benefit but not increase it.
- C. Skip premium payments without affecting the policy’s coverage.
- D. Convert the policy to a term life insurance policy.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: In a universal life insurance policy, the policyholder has the flexibility to skip premium payments without affecting the policy’s coverage or losing the policy altogether. This feature allows the policyholder to adjust premium payments according to their financial situation while maintaining the policy’s benefits. It provides a degree of flexibility that is not typically found in other types of life insurance policies, making it an attractive option for those who may face varying financial circumstances over time.
Which federal law ensures that individuals with disabilities have equal access to employment opportunities and public accommodations?
- A. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
- B. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
- C. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
- D. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
The correct answer is A. Explanation: The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) is a federal law that ensures individuals with disabilities have equal access to employment opportunities and public accommodations. It prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability and requires employers and public places to provide reasonable accommodations to individuals with disabilities, promoting inclusivity and equal opportunities in various aspects of life.
Everyone listed below is a party to a life insurance agreement, EXCEPT: I. Insurer II. Underwriter III. Beneficiary IV. Owner V. Insured
- A. II only
- B. III only
- C. II, III, and V
- D. All are parties to a life insurance contract
The correct answer is C. Explanation:
In order for a policy to be issued, which of the following must satisfy an insurable interest requirement?
- A. Beneficiary
- B. Covered
- C. The insured’s heirs
- D. All of the preceding
The correct answer is A. Explanation: In a life insurance agreement, the parties involved typically include the insurer, owner, and insured. The underwriter assesses the risk but is not considered a formal party to the contract. The beneficiary is the individual or entity designated to receive the policy’s benefits upon the insured’s death.
Jack and his wife Lyn recently took out a 15-year mortgage to buy a house. Jack had a “temporary” need for life insurance because he wanted to ensure that Lyn would be able to pay off the mortgage balance in the case of his passing. What kind of insurance should Jack get?
- A. Whole Life Insurance
- B. Term life insurance
- C. Contingent Life Insurance
- D. An Unfair Settlement
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Jack should consider getting term life insurance to cover his temporary need, which is specifically designed to provide coverage for a set period, such as the duration of a mortgage. Term life insurance offers a death benefit that can help Lyn pay off the mortgage balance if Jack passes away during the term of the policy.
Based on its investment component, which type of life insurance is deemed to be riskier?
- A. Level Term Life Insurance
- B. Term Life Insurance
- C. Term life insurance rates decreasing
- D. Variable Life Insurance
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Variable Life Insurance is considered riskier based on its investment component. Unlike other types of life insurance that offer fixed premiums and guaranteed cash values, Variable Life Insurance allows policyholders to invest in various investment options, such as stocks and bonds. The cash value of a variable life insurance policy can fluctuate based on the performance of these investments, making it riskier compared to other types of life insurance with more predictable cash values.
When deciding whether to accept an application, life insurance underwriters take a number of variables into account. These elements may consist of:
- A. Medical history
- B. Profession
- C. Interests
- D. All of the above
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Life insurance underwriters consider a variety of variables when deciding whether to accept an application. These variables typically include the applicant’s medical history, profession, and interests, among other factors. The underwriting process aims to assess the overall risk associated with insuring an individual, and all of these variables play a role in that assessment.
In order for an underwriter to issue an insurance policy, which of the following must have an insurable interest?
- A. Insured
- B. Owner
- C. Beneficiary
- D. Witness
The correct answer is C. Explanation: In order for an underwriter to issue an insurance policy, the beneficiary must have an insurable interest in the insured individual’s life or property. This means that the beneficiary would suffer a financial loss or hardship if the insured event occurs. Having an insurable interest ensures that the insurance policy serves a legitimate financial purpose for the beneficiary.
Which of the following relates to a group of relationships where one person has the power to act in another’s place to establish a legal connection with a third party?
- A. Principals law
- B. Law of agency
- C. Third-Party Law
- D. None of the preceding
The correct answer is B. Explanation: The term that relates to a group of relationships where one person has the power to act in another’s place to establish a legal connection with a third party is the “Law of agency.” This legal concept governs the interactions and responsibilities between individuals or entities, such as agents and principals, when one party is authorized to act on behalf of another in various legal and business matters.
All of the following might be regarded as life-changing occurrences that may alter the required amount of life insurance, WITH THE EXCEPTION OF: I. the arrival of a new baby II. Dissolution of a marriage III. Wedding ceremony IV. Alteration in employment position
- A. I, II, and III.
- B. Only II and III
- C. I alone
- D. IV alone
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Among the listed life-changing occurrences that may alter the required amount of life insurance, the one that is not typically considered a life-changing event in this context is “IV. Alteration in employment position.” While events like the arrival of a new baby, dissolution of a marriage, and a wedding ceremony often lead individuals to reevaluate their life insurance needs, changes in employment position may or may not have a direct impact on the required amount of life insurance coverage.
Buy-sell agreements should always include term life insurance.
- A. True
- B. False
The correct answer is B. Explanation: It is not always necessary for buy-sell agreements to include term life insurance. The inclusion of term life insurance in a buy-sell agreement depends on the specific circumstances and needs of the parties involved. Term life insurance may be used in buy-sell agreements to provide funds for the purchase of a deceased owner’s share of a business, but it is not a universal requirement. The decision to include life insurance in a buy-sell agreement should be based on the goals and financial arrangements of the business owners.
The proceeds from corporate-owned life insurance can be used for the following things: I. To hire, onboard, and train a new executive or staff II. To pay for additional corporate debt burdens III. Redeeming the stock of the deceased employee
- A. III only
- B. I and III only
- C. All of the above
- D. None of the above
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Corporate-owned life insurance proceeds can be used for various purposes, including hiring, onboarding, and training new executives or staff (as mentioned in option I). They can also be utilized to pay off additional corporate debt burdens (as mentioned in option II) and for redeeming the stock of a deceased employee (as mentioned in option III). Therefore, all three options are valid uses for corporate-owned life insurance proceeds.
What is the element that all life insurance policies have in common?
- A. Living benefits
- B. Removing the premium
- C. Death benefit
- D. Cost-of-living adjustment
The correct answer is C. Explanation: All life insurance policies have a common element, which is the death benefit. This benefit is the amount paid out to the beneficiaries upon the death of the insured individual. It provides financial protection and support to the loved ones of the policyholder in the event of their passing.
There are always two parts to permanent life insurance coverage. Describe them. I. Death Benefit II. Money value III. Living Advantages IV. Conversion Advantage
- A. I, II, III and IV
- B. I, II and III
- C. Il and IV
- D. I and II
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Permanent life insurance coverage typically consists of two main parts:
I. Death Benefit: This is the primary purpose of a life insurance policy. It provides a payout to the beneficiaries upon the death of the insured individual. It offers financial protection to the loved ones and can cover various expenses.
II. Cash Value: Permanent life insurance policies, such as whole life or universal life, also have a cash value component. This is a savings or investment portion of the policy that accumulates over time. Policyholders can often access this cash value for loans or withdrawals during their lifetime, providing a form of financial flexibility.
These two components combine to offer both protection and potential financial growth within a permanent life insurance policy.
What amount will be given to a beneficiary of a life insurance policy upon the demise of the insured?
- A. Money value
- B. Value of surrender
- C. Investment potential
- D. Death Benefit
The correct answer is D. Explanation: The amount given to a beneficiary of a life insurance policy upon the demise of the insured is known as the “Death Benefit.” This is the primary purpose of a life insurance policy, and it provides a lump-sum payment or financial compensation to the designated beneficiary or beneficiaries upon the insured person’s death. The death benefit is intended to offer financial support and security to the loved ones of the insured and can be used for various purposes, such as covering funeral expenses, paying off debts, or providing income replacement.
John passed away on August 31st after a protracted battle with cancer and had a life insurance policy with a death payout. Prior to his passing, he spent a month in the hospital. On September 5th, following John’s burial and after having had time to gather her emotions to deal with her own loss, his wife phoned the insurance provider to submit her claim for the death benefit. The death benefit was paid out on October 30 after the insurance agent submitted the necessary paperwork to his supervisor for processing the claim. Any laws broken in this situation?
- A. No, the agent submitted the necessary papers within 30 days after the claim.
- B. The claim was unresolved after a period of 30 days.
- C. No, there are rumors about John’s passing.
- D. The claim was unresolved after 15 days had passed.
The correct answer is B. Explanation: In many jurisdictions, insurance companies are typically required by law to process and pay out life insurance claims promptly, usually within a certain time frame, which is often 30 days. In this situation, the death benefit claim was paid out on October 30, which is more than 30 days after the wife submitted the claim on September 5. This delay may have violated the legal requirement for timely processing of life insurance claims, depending on the specific laws and regulations in place.
It’s essential for insurance companies to adhere to these time frames to ensure that beneficiaries receive the financial support they need promptly after the insured person’s death. Delays in claim processing can cause unnecessary financial hardship for beneficiaries during an already challenging time.
Which of the following is a rider that enables a person who is terminally ill to access at least some of the death benefit money before passing away?
- A. The waiver
- B. Living benefit
- C. Addition
- D. The addendum
The correct answer is B. Explanation: A living benefit rider, also known as an accelerated death benefit rider, allows a terminally ill policyholder to access a portion of the death benefit before their passing. This feature provides financial assistance to the policyholder during a challenging time, such as covering medical expenses or other end-of-life costs, and can alleviate some of the financial burdens associated with terminal illness. It essentially accelerates the payout of a portion of the death benefit to the policyholder while they are still alive.
The following methods are usually used to access living benefits under a life insurance policy:
- A. Lump sum
- B. Recurrent payments
- C. Loan
- D. A and B
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Living benefits under a life insurance policy are typically accessed through two main methods:
A. Lump sum: The policyholder receives a one-time, lump-sum payment of a portion of the death benefit when they meet the criteria for a living benefit, such as a terminal illness diagnosis.
B. Recurrent payments: Instead of a single lump-sum payment, the policyholder may opt to receive the living benefit amount in periodic payments over time, providing ongoing financial support during their illness.
These options offer flexibility to policyholders in managing their financial needs when faced with a qualifying medical condition or terminal illness.
The insured person has no input into how an insurance policy is worded. Insurance contracts are regarded as ___ in this regard.
- A. Contracts of Adherence
- B. Forbearance contracts
- C. Contracts by Regulation, Section
- D. Legal Contracts
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Insurance policies are often considered “Contracts of Adherence” because the insured person typically has no input into how the insurance policy is worded. These contracts are drafted by the insurance company, and the insured person agrees to the terms and conditions set forth in the policy.
In an insurance contract, a(n) ___ is a declaration made by the issuing insurance firm that outlines the primary purpose of insurance, which is to pay for damages covered by the policy.
- A. Beneficiary designation
- B. Premium payment.
- C. Insuring clause
- D. Rider
The correct answer is C. Explanation: In an insurance contract, the “insuring clause” is a declaration made by the issuing insurance firm that outlines the primary purpose of insurance, which is to pay for damages covered by the policy. It specifies what the insurance policy is designed to protect against and the scope of coverage provided.
Which one of the subsequent is not a type of health insurance? I. Dental coverage II. Vision coverage III. Disability insurance IV. Long-term care insurance
- A. I only
- B. II only
- C. All of the above
- D. None of the above
The correct answer is D. Explanation: All of the options listed (I. Dental coverage, II. Vision coverage, III. Disability insurance, IV. Long-term care insurance) are types of health insurance or insurance products related to health and wellness. Therefore, none of the options are excluded from the category of health insurance.
A commercial client is seeking for strategies to lower its monthly insurance payments. The agent knows they must switch to a high deductible health plan in order to reduce their premiums to the amount desired by the firm. What should you cover in your discussion as part of your advice to the company?
- A. HMO
- B. PSA
- C. LPO
- D. POS
- E. HSA
The correct answer is D. Explanation: When advising a commercial client on strategies to lower monthly insurance payments by switching to a high deductible health plan, it’s essential to discuss a Point of Service (POS) plan. A POS plan is a type of health insurance plan that combines features of both Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs) and Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs). POS plans often involve lower monthly premiums in exchange for higher deductibles and require members to choose a primary care physician (PCP) but also allow for out-of-network coverage at a higher cost.
While options like HMOs (A) and HSAs (E) may be relevant to the discussion of health insurance plans, they are not specifically associated with high deductible plans in the same way that POS plans are. The other options (B, C) do not typically relate to health insurance plans.
A long-term care insurance policy’s components are all of the following, EXCEPT:
- A. Elimination phase
- B. Amount of benefits
- C. Own profession
- D. Duration of benefits
The correct answer is C. Explanation: When discussing the components of a long-term care insurance policy, the term “Own profession” is not typically one of them. The components of a long-term care insurance policy often include:
A. Elimination phase (waiting period before benefits begin). B. Amount of benefits (the maximum benefit amount or daily benefit amount). D. Duration of benefits (how long the benefits will be paid).
The “Own profession” concept is not a standard component of such policies.
A number of standards must be met before creating a significant medical insurance coverage, including:
- A. Insurance deductible
- B. Maximum amount out-of-pocket
- C. The elimination phase
- D. A and B
- E. Al of tthem
The correct answer is E. Explanation: When creating significant medical insurance coverage, several standards must be met, including:
A. Insurance deductible. B. Maximum amount out-of-pocket. C. The elimination phase.
So, the correct answer indicates that all of these standards need to be considered when establishing comprehensive medical insurance coverage.
To encourage an applicant to get a policy, Ted, a health insurance agent, offered to send the applicant and his wife on a weekend getaway to a nearby resort. Is this act legal, and if not, what is it known as?
- A. No; False Statement
- B. Twisting; not
- C. Absolutely; that is acceptable.
- D. No; Rebating.
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Offering to send an applicant and their spouse on a weekend getaway to encourage them to purchase a policy is not legal in the insurance industry and is known as “rebating.” Rebating involves providing something of value to the policyholder or potential policyholder as an inducement to purchase insurance, which is typically prohibited by insurance regulations to maintain fairness and prevent unfair competition.
An agent must find clients in order to succeed. In order to sell him a new insurance that is comparable to his current one, he gets the notion to ask his customer to let his current policy lapse. Is this acceptable, and if not, what is the name of this action?
- A. Not at all; Rebating
- B. False; a bait-and-switch
- C. No; Twisting
- D. Yes; it is seamlessly acceptable
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Asking a customer to let their current insurance policy lapse in order to sell them a new policy is not acceptable and is known as “twisting.” Twisting involves using deceptive or misleading tactics to persuade a policyholder to surrender or lapse their existing policy in favor of a new one. This practice is typically prohibited in the insurance industry to protect the interests of policyholders.
The amount that an insured person is required to pay for a medical bill at the time of the visit is known as a ?
- A. Deductible
- B. Compensation
- C. Strip
- D. Copayment
The correct answer is D. Explanation: The amount that an insured person is required to pay for a medical bill at the time of the visit is known as a “copayment” or “copay.” It is a fixed, predetermined amount that the insured individual pays for covered healthcare services or prescriptions at the time of service, while the insurance company covers the remaining costs.
Along-term care insurance policy’s “deductible” is known as the ?
- A. Deductible
- B. Insured
- C. Elimination period
- D. witness
The correct answer is C. Explanation: In a long-term care insurance policy, the “deductible” is often referred to as the “elimination period.” It is a specific waiting period during which the insured individual is responsible for covering the cost of their long-term care services before the insurance benefits begin to pay out. Once the elimination period is satisfied, the insurance policy starts providing coverage for qualified long-term care expenses.
Standard codes known as _ are used on health insurance claim forms to represent the precise operations that were carried out for the insured.
A. RVU codes B. The AMA codes C. HCPCS codes D. CPT codes
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Standard codes known as “CPT codes” (Current Procedural Terminology codes) are used on health insurance claim forms to represent the precise medical procedures and services that were carried out for the insured. These codes help ensure accurate billing and reimbursement for healthcare services provided by healthcare professionals.
What kind of notice is used to list every treatment or item that was billed to Medicare over the course of three months, what Medicare paid, and how much the patient might still owe the provider?
- A. MSN
- B. BCT
- C. OTAS
- D. HCPCS
The correct answer is A. Explanation: A Medicare Summary Notice (MSN) is used to list every treatment or item that was billed to Medicare over the course of three months. It provides details about what Medicare paid and how much the patient might still owe the provider for covered healthcare services. The MSN helps Medicare beneficiaries review their Medicare claims and ensures transparency in billing and payments.
If the insured were to break his or her hand, which sort of disability insurance would provide the policy holder with the most flexible definition of benefit triggers in terms of benefit receipt?
- A. Own profession
- B. Employer-supplied
- C. Social Security
- D. Administrative costs
The correct answer is A. Explanation: In the context of disability insurance, “own profession” disability insurance provides the policyholder with the most flexible definition of benefit triggers in terms of benefit receipt. This means that the policyholder can receive benefits if they are unable to work in their own specific profession or occupation, even if they are physically capable of working in a different occupation. This provides greater flexibility and protection for individuals with specialized or high-income professions.
The major source of disability income protection should be Social Security.
- A. True
- B. False
The correct answer is B. Explanation: While Social Security may provide some disability income protection, it should not be the major or sole source of disability income protection for most individuals. Social Security disability benefits are typically limited and may not cover all of an individual’s financial needs in the event of a disability. It is advisable for individuals to supplement their disability income protection with private disability insurance to ensure they have adequate coverage in case of disability.
_ is an illustration of a speculative risk?
- A. Skydiving
- B. Gambling
- C. Constant travel
- D. Dangerous driving
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Speculative risk is a category of risk where both gain and loss are possible, and it typically involves situations where individuals or entities voluntarily take on risk in the hope of achieving a gain. Gambling is a classic example of speculative risk because participants knowingly wager money or assets with the hope of winning more, but there is also a risk of losing the wagered amount. In contrast, activities like skydiving, constant travel, and dangerous driving involve inherent risks but may not always be undertaken for the primary purpose of financial gain.
An insurable risk is one that:
- A. is pure
- B. Has a specific monetary worth
- C. Is quantifiable
- D. All of the above
The correct answer is D. Explanation: An insurable risk is one that meets several criteria, including being pure (meaning it involves a chance of loss but no chance of gain), having a specific monetary value that can be determined, and being quantifiable or measurable. These characteristics make a risk suitable for insurance coverage, as it allows insurers to assess and price the risk accurately, which is essential for the insurance industry to function effectively.
Insurance policies stipulate that for a claim to be paid, a condition must hold true in the future. Because of this, insurance policies are:
- A. Unilateral
- B. Conditional
- C. Probationary
- D. Powerful
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Insurance policies typically have conditions that must be met for a claim to be paid in the future. These conditions are outlined in the policy terms and include requirements such as timely premium payments, the occurrence of a covered event, and adherence to policy provisions. Meeting these conditions is essential for the policyholder to receive benefits from the insurance policy.
Which of these several forms of life insurance policies guarantees guaranteed premiums for the duration of the policy?
- A. Term
- B. Whole
- C. Widespread
- D. Modular
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Whole life insurance policies guarantee fixed premiums for the duration of the policy. This means that the policyholder pays the same premium amount throughout the life of the policy, and the premiums do not increase with age. Additionally, whole life insurance policies provide a death benefit that is payable to the beneficiary upon the insured’s death, and they often have a cash value component that grows over time.
One significant benefit of term life insurance is that it frequently:
- A. Increases in worth with time
- B. Is more affordable than permanent insurance
- C. Offers protection for a longer period of time
- D. May be applied as a wealth-building tactic
The correct answer is B. Explanation: One significant benefit of term life insurance is that it is typically more affordable than permanent life insurance. Term life insurance provides coverage for a specified term or duration, such as 10, 20, or 30 years, and it is designed to provide a death benefit to beneficiaries if the insured person passes away during that term. Because it does not have the cash value component that permanent insurance policies have, term life insurance premiums are often lower, making it an attractive option for individuals looking for cost-effective life insurance coverage.
The buyer of life insurance on another person must provide evidence of:
- A. Financial security
- B. Proof of insurability
- C. Insurable interest
- D. Risk that is insurable
The correct answer is C. Explanation: When an individual wants to buy life insurance on another person, they must provide evidence of insurable interest. Insurable interest means that the person buying the insurance has a legitimate financial interest in the continued life of the insured individual. This requirement ensures that life insurance is not used for speculative purposes or as a form of gambling. Typically, insurable interest exists in situations where the death of the insured would result in a financial loss to the policyholder, such as in the case of a spouse, business partner, or dependent child. This requirement helps maintain the ethical and financial integrity of the life insurance contract.
The insurer has the right to assess the insurance application within the first two years of the policy’s effective date and to refuse to pay the death benefits if the information given is false or insufficient. This period of time is called the _?
- A. Contestable period
- B. The elimination phase
- C. The holding time
- D. Grace period
The correct answer is A. Explanation: The contestable period is a specific timeframe typically lasting for the first two years of a life insurance policy’s effective date. During this period, the insurance company has the right to investigate the accuracy of the information provided in the insurance application. If they find that the information was false or insufficient, they may contest the policy and refuse to pay the death benefits.
This period is in place to allow the insurance company to verify the accuracy of the information provided by the policyholder and to prevent fraud or misrepresentation. It serves as a safeguard to ensure that the policy is based on truthful and complete information. After the contestable period expires, the insurance company generally cannot contest the policy based on misrepresentations made in the application.
Exclusions from life insurance are meant to describe potential causes of death, such as?
- A. Generous claim settlements
- B. A higher premium payment.
- C. Failure to pay death benefits
- D. Prorated death benefits payments
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Exclusions in a life insurance policy are specific situations or causes of death for which the insurance company may refuse to pay out the death benefit. These exclusions are typically outlined in the policy contract and are meant to describe scenarios where the insurance company is not obligated to provide coverage. One common exclusion is related to suicide within the first two years of the policy (the contestable period), where the insurer may not pay the full death benefit.
Exclusions are important for policyholders to understand as they define the limits of coverage and the circumstances under which the insurance company may deny a claim. It’s essential to review and be aware of the policy’s exclusions when purchasing life insurance.
When discussing beneficiary designations for clients’ life insurance plans, which of the following is MOST crucial for an insurance advisor to remember?
- A. Length of the grace period for the policy
- B. Whether the insurance policy was mandated by a court
- C. Rating for insurers
- D. All of the above
The correct answer is B. Explanation: When discussing beneficiary designations for clients’ life insurance plans, it’s crucial for an insurance advisor to consider whether the insurance policy was mandated by a court. This is important because court-ordered policies may have specific legal requirements and designations that must be followed. Court-ordered policies often involve divorce settlements or other legal matters, and failing to comply with court mandates can have legal consequences.
While other factors like the length of the grace period or the rating for insurers may be important in other contexts, when dealing with court-ordered life insurance, compliance with legal requirements takes precedence. Therefore, ensuring that beneficiary designations align with any court mandates is of utmost importance.
Currently, the Federal Insurance Office (FIO) of the U.S. Department of the Treasury has the power to observe:
- A. Only Annuities
- B. The insurance industry in the United States as a whole alone
- C. Only issues involving international insurance
- D. International and domestic insurance issues
The correct answer is D. Explanation: The Federal Insurance Office (FIO) of the U.S. Department of the Treasury has the authority to observe both international and domestic insurance issues. This includes monitoring and reporting on the insurance industry in the United States as well as addressing issues related to international insurance matters. The FIO plays a role in coordinating and representing U.S. interests in insurance matters on the international stage while also analyzing and reporting on domestic insurance trends and concerns.
Insurance is often regulated by.
- A. States
- B. Federal authorities
- C. Local authorities
- D. counties
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Insurance is primarily regulated at the state level in the United States. Each state has its own insurance department or commission responsible for overseeing insurance activities within its jurisdiction. State insurance regulators establish and enforce rules and regulations to protect consumers, ensure the solvency of insurance companies, and maintain the stability of the insurance market. While there are some federal regulations that apply to specific aspects of insurance, such as health insurance through the Affordable Care Act, the primary regulatory authority lies with the individual states.
Legislation that oversees and controls the insurance sector is known as:
- A. Insurer rights legislation
- B. Regulation of Insurance
- C. NAIC model law
- D. Risk-avoidance legislation
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Legislation that oversees and controls the insurance sector is typically referred to as “Regulation of Insurance.” This legislation encompasses various laws and regulations at both the state and federal levels, which are designed to regulate insurance activities, protect consumers, ensure the financial stability of insurance companies, and maintain the integrity of the insurance market. The specific regulations may vary from one jurisdiction to another, but their overarching purpose is to govern the insurance industry.
Which of the following concerns is NOT a life insurance plan rider example?
- A. The waiver of the disability insurance rider premium
- B. A rider for a delayed acceptance
- C. A rider for child insurance
- D. A rider for return-of-premium insurance
The correct answer is B. Explanation: While the other options represent common life insurance plan riders:
A. The waiver of the disability insurance rider premium allows the insured to have their premiums waived if they become disabled and cannot work.
C. A rider for child insurance provides coverage for the insured’s children under the same policy.
D. A rider for return-of-premium insurance provides the policyholder with a refund of their premiums if certain conditions are met.
Option B, “A rider for delayed acceptance,” is not a standard life insurance rider and is not typically offered in life insurance policies.
Which division within an insurance firm determines the approval or rejection of applications and handles the allocation of risk categories?
- A. Legal division
- B. Finance Division
- C. The underwriting division
- D. The claims division
The correct answer is C. Explanation: The division within an insurance firm that determines the approval or rejection of insurance applications and handles the allocation of risk categories is the underwriting division. They assess the risk associated with each applicant and decide whether to provide coverage and at what premium rate. So, the correct answer is C.
The 11 optional clauses found in life insurance policies seem to restrict the _ more than anything else?
- A. An insurance provider
- B. An outside administrator
- C. Agent
- D. Covered
The correct answer is D. Explanation: The 11 optional clauses found in life insurance policies are designed to specify various conditions and terms related to the coverage provided by the policy. These clauses can include provisions related to exclusions, beneficiaries, policy loans, cash values, and other aspects of the policy. These clauses serve to define and clarify the extent of coverage and the circumstances under which the policy will pay out.
When we say that these clauses seem to restrict the “Covered” more than anything else, we mean that these clauses set the limitations and conditions under which the policyholder (the covered individual) can receive benefits from the policy. In essence, these clauses can restrict or limit the circumstances under which the insurance company will pay out benefits. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the “Covered” individual is affected most by these policy clauses in terms of the restrictions and conditions placed on the coverage.
Which of the 11 optional life insurance provisions are chosen to be included in insurance contracts by which organizations?
- A. Insurers
- B. The States
- C. Federal institutions
- D. Administrators from third parties
The correct answer is A. Explanation: The 11 optional life insurance provisions are typically chosen to be included in insurance contracts by the insurers themselves. Insurance companies design their policies and choose from these provisions to create insurance contracts that meet their business objectives and customer needs. These provisions help define the terms and conditions of the policy, such as beneficiaries, riders, exclusions, and other aspects of the coverage. Therefore, it is the insurers who select and include these provisions in insurance contracts.
A Qualified Health Plan will be deemed “affordable” as of January 2023 if an individual’s portion of premium costs for the least expensive plan available does not exceed:
- A. 5% out of the national poverty level
- B. 12% of the worker’s gross pay
- C. 9.12 % of the emplovee’s household income
- D. $1,000 per year
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), a Qualified Health Plan (QHP) is considered “affordable” if the employee’s portion of the premium cost for the least expensive plan available does not exceed a certain percentage of their household income. As of January 2023, this threshold is 9.12% of the employee’s household income. If the premium for the least expensive plan available costs the employee less than or equal to 9.12% of their household income, the plan is deemed affordable under the ACA, and the individual may qualify for certain subsidies or assistance programs.
Which of the following statements, according to the Affordable Care Act, DOES NOT fall within one of the ten categories of “minimum essential coverage (MEC.”?
- A. Outpatient care
- B. Emergency assistance
- C. Cosmetic surgery
- D. Maternity, infant, and pregnancy care
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), there are ten categories of “minimum essential coverage (MEC)” that insurance plans must cover to meet the requirements of the law. These categories include essential health benefits like outpatient care, emergency assistance, maternity, infant, and pregnancy care, among others.
Cosmetic surgery is generally not considered an essential health benefit, and it is not typically covered as part of minimum essential coverage under the ACA. Cosmetic surgery is usually elective and not related to essential health care needs. Therefore, it does not fall within one of the ten categories of minimum essential coverage.
Co-Insurance refers to the portion of medical expenses that a policyholder is responsible for covering after the insurance has been applied:
- A. Meets the deductible for the plan
- B. Exceeds the individual maximum of the plan
- C. Exceeds the family maximum of the plan
- D. Includes a spouse in the plan
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Co-insurance is the portion of medical expenses that a policyholder is responsible for covering after they have met their deductible for the insurance plan. Once the deductible is met, the insurance plan typically covers a percentage of the medical expenses (e.g., 80%), and the policyholder is responsible for paying the remaining percentage (e.g., 20%) as co-insurance. So, co-insurance comes into play after the policyholder has met the deductible for the plan.
Beyond the initial or yearly enrollment period, alterations to the plan can only be made by an insured person when:
- A. They have had coverage for at least 24 months straight
- B. A qualifying event, such as a marriage, divorce, child’s birth, or change in job status, takes place
- C. They receive the insurer’s written consent
- D. A medical diagnosis is made for the insured
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Under the rules of many insurance plans, alterations or changes to the plan can typically only be made outside of the initial or yearly enrollment period when a qualifying event occurs. Qualifying events can include things like getting married, getting divorced, having a child, experiencing a change in job status (such as losing or gaining employment), and other significant life events. These events trigger a special enrollment period during which the insured person can make changes to their insurance plan to accommodate the new circumstances. So, option B is the correct answer.
Which of the following suggestions would be the LEAST useful when counseling clients on choosing a medical insurance plan?
- A. Determine whether the insured’s prescriptions are covered by the coordinating prescription plan.
- B. Determine who provides the insurer’s stop-loss coverage.
- C. Determine whether their present providers are in-network by checking medical plan networks and primary care providers.
- D. Examine the individual and family plan deductibles.
The correct answer is B. Explanation: When counseling clients on choosing a medical insurance plan, determining who provides the insurer’s stop-loss coverage is likely to be the least useful piece of information for the client. Stop-loss coverage typically relates to the insurance company’s financial protection against exceptionally high claims and is more relevant to the insurer’s risk management practices than to the client’s coverage options.
The other options (A, C, and D) provide information that is more directly relevant to the client’s decision-making process regarding their medical insurance plan, such as coverage for prescriptions, in-network providers, and deductibles, which can significantly impact their out-of-pocket costs and access to healthcare services.
What type of savings program is typically provided in conjunction with a high deductible health plan (HDHP)?
- A. Considerable Spending Account
- B. Health Savings Account
- C. Account for Reimbursement of Dependent Care
- D. 401(K) Plan
The correct answer is B. Explanation: A Health Savings Account (HSA) is typically provided in conjunction with a high deductible health plan (HDHP). An HSA allows individuals to save money on a tax-advantaged basis to cover qualified medical expenses. Contributions to an HSA are tax-deductible, and the funds can be used to pay for medical expenses such as doctor visits, prescriptions, and other eligible healthcare costs. HDHPs are often paired with HSAs to help individuals save for healthcare expenses while also providing them with a health insurance plan that has a higher deductible and lower premiums.
Catastrophic losses are covered by major medical expense insurance when:
- A. Basic insurance expires
- B. A worker first qualifies for insurance
- C. Stop-loss insurers fail to uphold their financial commitments
- D. The insured person is no longer able to pay premiums
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Catastrophic losses are typically covered by major medical expense insurance when the basic insurance coverage, which may include primary health insurance or other insurance policies, expires or reaches its limits. Major medical expense insurance is designed to provide coverage for significant and costly medical expenses that exceed the limits of basic insurance coverage. This type of insurance is intended to address severe health situations, such as serious illnesses or injuries, where the expenses are exceptionally high. So, when the basic insurance coverage is exhausted or expires, major medical expense insurance can kick in to provide additional coverage for catastrophic losses.
John’s major medical insurance has an 80/20 coinsurance split and a $2500 deductible. What amount must John pay the provider directly if the service sends him a bill for $1000?
- A. $200
- B. $800
- C. $1000
- D. $2500
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Here’s how the calculation works:
John has a deductible of $2500. The service sends him a bill for $1000. Since the bill of $1000 is less than John’s deductible of $2500, he is responsible for paying the full amount of the bill out of pocket. So, John must pay the provider directly the full amount of $1000.
Which of the following statutes was developed by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners NAIC. to establish common clauses for all individual health insurance policies?
- A. The Law on Standardized Individual Accident and Sickness Policy Provisions
- B. The United States Individual Healthcare Act
- C. The law requiring certain health provisions
- D. The law governing NAIC policy provisions
The correct answer is A. Explanation: The Law on Standardized Individual Accident and Sickness Policy Provisions, often referred to as the “Model Act,” was developed by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) to establish common clauses and provisions for all individual health insurance policies. It serves as a framework for states to adopt and regulate individual health insurance policies, ensuring a level of consistency and consumer protection in the insurance industry. This model act helps in standardizing certain provisions and practices across different states.
Some individual health insurance contracts contain clauses that permit insurers to raise medical plan premiums when an insured person switches to a more dangerous line of work. This clause is known as:
- A. The clause under “Relation of Earning to Insurance”
- B. The clause relating to “Change of Occupation”
- C. The “Illegal Occupation” clause
- D. The clause that says “Conditionally Renewable”
The correct answer is B. Explanation: The clause relating to “Change of Occupation” in an individual health insurance contract allows insurers to adjust premiums if an insured person switches to a more dangerous or higher-risk occupation. Insurance companies use this clause to account for the increased risk associated with certain occupations, which may result in higher likelihood of accidents or health issues. It allows insurers to adjust premiums to reflect the change in risk, ensuring that the insurance remains actuarially sound and appropriately priced.
An organization is often regarded as a “Applicable Large Employer (ALE)” if it:
- A. During the prior insurance plan year, had an average of 50 or more combined full-time equivalent employees.
- B. Anticipates having 50 or more full-time or full-time equivalent employees on average throughout the previous calendar year.
- C. During the previous calendar year, had an average of 50 or more combined full-time or full-time equivalent employees.
- D. Employs 50 or more full-time or full-time equivalent workers now.
The correct answer is C. Explanation: An organization is typically regarded as an “Applicable Large Employer (ALE)” for purposes of the Affordable Care Act (ACA) if, during the previous calendar year, it had an average of 50 or more combined full-time or full-time equivalent employees. This determination is used to assess the employer’s obligations under the ACA, including requirements related to offering health insurance coverage to its employees.
In a self-funded health plan, the employer bears the financial burden of paying claims to covered parties. Which of the following options would most effectively reduce the financial risks brought on by high plan utilization?
- A. Reduced premiums
- B. A larger network of providers
- C. Stop-loss insurance
- D. Limitations on the coverage of standard processes
The correct answer is C. Explanation: In a self-funded health plan, the employer assumes the financial responsibility for paying claims to covered parties. This means that the employer directly covers the healthcare expenses of their employees. To mitigate the financial risks associated with high plan utilization, employers often purchase stop-loss insurance.
Stop-loss insurance provides protection to the employer by setting a limit on the total amount they have to pay for medical claims in a given period. There are two types of stop-loss insurance: individual and aggregate.
Individual stop-loss insurance limits the amount the employer has to pay for each individual employee’s medical claims, protecting against very high individual costs. Aggregate stop-loss insurance sets a maximum limit on the total claims paid by the employer for the entire group of covered employees. This protects against high overall plan utilization. By having stop-loss insurance in place, the employer can reduce the financial risk associated with unexpected high healthcare costs, making it a key strategy in managing the financial risks of a self-funded health plan.
Companies are required to provide coverage to all dependents who are under the following age ranges under an employer-sponsored medical insurance plan:
- A. 13
- B. 18
- C. 20
- D. 26
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA) in the United States, employer-sponsored medical insurance plans are required to provide coverage for dependent children until they reach the age of 26. This means that young adults can remain on their parents’ health insurance plan up to the age of 26, regardless of their marital, student, or employment status. This provision has extended healthcare coverage to many young adults and has become a standard requirement for employer-sponsored plans in the U.S.
Employers may provide various benefits and/or premium contributions to various employee categories as long as:
- A. Tenure is not used to group employees
- B. Worker classifications are not used to classify employees
- C. Gender is not used to group employees
- D. Location of jobs is not used to group employees
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Under various employment and anti-discrimination laws, it is generally prohibited to discriminate against employees based on their gender or sex. This includes providing benefits, premium contributions, or any other employment-related benefits based on an individual’s gender. Employers must offer benefits and contributions in a non-discriminatory manner, treating all employees fairly and equally regardless of their gender.
Options A, B, and D do not directly address gender-based discrimination, which is the primary concern in this context. However, it’s important for employers to ensure that their benefit offerings and premium contributions comply with all applicable anti-discrimination laws and do not discriminate on the basis of tenure, worker classifications, or job locations either.
Which of these options does NOT represent a dental plan category?
- A. DHMO plan
- B. PPO Plan (Preferred Provider Organization)
- C. Indemnity Plan
- D. Fractional Pavment Plan
The correct answer is D. Explanation: The options A, B, and C represent common categories of dental insurance plans:
A. DHMO plan (Dental Health Maintenance Organization) - A type of dental plan that requires members to choose a primary dentist and typically provides comprehensive coverage for services when using in-network dentists.
B. PPO Plan (Preferred Provider Organization) - A type of dental plan that offers a network of preferred providers and provides better coverage when using in-network dentists while still allowing some coverage for out-of-network services.
C. Indemnity Plan - Also known as a fee-for-service plan, this type of dental plan allows members to see any dentist of their choice and reimburses them based on a fee schedule or a percentage of the dentist’s charges.
Option D, “Fractional Pavment Plan,” does not represent a recognized category of dental insurance plans and appears to be unrelated to dental insurance.
Which of the following is true for a disability insurance policy with a 90-day waiting period?
- A. On the 91st day of their disability, the insured can start receiving benefits.
- B. As long as the insured has been enrolled in the plan for 90 days, benefits can be received on the insured’s first day of incapacity.
- C. After the 90-day elimination period, the insured may begin receiving benefits on the beginning of the next month
- D. None of the above
The correct answer is A. Explanation: A disability insurance policy with a 90-day waiting period, also known as an elimination period, means that the insured must wait for 90 days from the start of their disability before they become eligible to receive benefits. On the 91st day of their disability, the insured can start receiving disability benefits from the insurance policy. This waiting period is designed to ensure that the insurance coverage is intended for more long-term disabilities, as opposed to short-term illnesses or injuries.
Which of the following is true for a disability insurance policy with a 90-day waiting period?
- A. On the 91st day of their disability, the insured can start receiving benefits.
- B. As long as the insured has been enrolled in the plan for 90 days, benefits can be received on the insured’s first day of incapacity.
- C. After the 90-day elimination period, the insured may begin receiving benefits on the beginning of the next month
- D. None of the above
The correct answer is A. Explanation: In a disability insurance policy with a 90-day waiting period, the insured typically has to wait for 90 days from the onset of their disability before they become eligible to receive disability benefits. On the 91st day of their disability, the insured can start receiving benefits from the insurance policy. This waiting period, also known as an elimination period, is a common feature of disability insurance and is designed to ensure that the coverage is for longer-term disabilities rather than short-term illnesses or injuries.
A Special Needs Plan (SP) is a Medicare Advantage coordinated care plan th
- A. Dementia
- B. A few autoimmune diseases
- C. Specific cardiovascular condit
- D. Seasonal allergies
The correct answer is D. Explanation: A Special Needs Plan (SNP) is a Medicare Advantage coordinated care plan that is designed to provide specialized care and services to individuals with specific health care needs. While SNPs can cover various specific conditions, they are not typically associated with conditions like dementia, autoimmune diseases, or specific cardiovascular conditions.
However, some SNPs may focus on providing care and services tailored to individuals with certain chronic or disabling conditions, so it’s essential to review the specific details of each SNP to determine the conditions they cover. Seasonal allergies, while generally not as severe as the other conditions mentioned, could potentially be a focus of a Special Needs Plan designed to address specific healthcare needs.
Special Needs Plans (SNPs) come in three varieties, and they are as follows:
- A. A chronic condition, dual eligible, and institutional status
- B. Institutional, occupational, and dual eligible
- C. Cost-of-Living, Chronic Condition, and Dual Eligibility
- D. Institutional, living expenses, and occupational
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Special Needs Plans (SNPs) in Medicare Advantage come in three main varieties, which are categorized based on the specific needs they serve:
Chronic Condition SNP (C-SNP): These plans are designed to meet the needs of individuals with specific chronic or severe health conditions, such as diabetes, heart failure, or HIV/AIDS.
Dual Eligible SNP (D-SNP): These plans are for individuals who are eligible for both Medicare and Medicaid, helping to coordinate their healthcare coverage.
Institutional SNP (I-SNP): These plans are tailored for individuals who live in long-term care facilities, such as nursing homes or assisted living facilities.
Each type of SNP is designed to address the unique healthcare needs of its target population, as indicated in option A.
Which of the following does long-term care insurance NOT often cover?
- A. Assisted living services
- B. Care provided by members of the family
- C. Services for nursing homes
- D. Hospice care
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Long-term care insurance typically does not cover care provided by family members or informal caregivers. It is designed to help cover the costs of professional long-term care services, such as those provided in assisted living facilities, nursing homes, and hospice care. While family members often play a crucial role in providing care and support, long-term care insurance is typically focused on reimbursing the costs of formal care services provided by trained professionals or in licensed care settings. Care provided by family members is considered informal care and is not typically covered by long-term care insurance policies.
The majority of individual long-term care insurance policies need underwriting, so a candidate in poor health may either be refused or offered _?
- A. Coverage solely for care given by family members
- B. An increased lifetime benefit cap
- C. A plan with an exclusion for nursing home services
- D. A coverage option with less coverage or higher rates
The correct answer is D. Explanation: In the majority of cases, individual long-term care insurance policies require underwriting, which involves assessing the applicant’s health and medical history. If a candidate is in poor health, they may either be refused coverage altogether or offered a coverage option with less coverage or higher premiums. Insurance companies may adjust the terms of the policy to account for the higher risk associated with insuring someone in poor health. This adjustment can come in the form of reduced coverage, higher rates, or other limitations on the policy.
A health maintenance organization (HMO) pays people back for services that are covered by a:
- A. Fixed cost
- B. Payment on a sliding scale
- C. Interest-based repayment
- D. Postponed payments
The correct answer is A. Explanation: A Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) typically operates on a fixed cost basis. In an HMO, members pay a predetermined monthly premium to the HMO, and in return, they are entitled to receive a set of healthcare services that are covered by the plan. These services are often provided at fixed costs or copayments for members, meaning that they pay a fixed amount for covered services regardless of the actual cost of the service. This is in contrast to payment on a sliding scale or interest-based repayment, which are not typically associated with HMOs.
One distinctive cost-control strategy employed by health maintenance organizations (HMO) plan insurers is:
- A. Employer waiting periods that are required
- B. The obligatory choice of a primary healthcare provider made by insured individuals
- C. High deductibles
- D. Flexibility in premiums
The correct answer is B. Explanation: One distinctive cost-control strategy employed by Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO) plan insurers is requiring insured individuals to choose a primary healthcare provider (PCP). In HMOs, individuals are typically required to select a primary care physician or healthcare provider from a network of approved providers. This PCP serves as the gatekeeper for accessing specialist care and must provide referrals for specialized services. By directing patients to their PCPs first, HMOs aim to manage and control healthcare costs by ensuring that care is coordinated and that individuals receive appropriate, cost-effective treatment within the network. This strategy helps promote preventive care and reduce unnecessary specialist visits, ultimately contributing to cost control.
What kind of annuity has a minimum interest rate that is guaranteed?
- A. Fixed
- B. The index-linked
- C. Modifiable
- D. A and B both
The correct answer is A. Explanation: A fixed annuity is an annuity that has a minimum interest rate that is guaranteed. With a fixed annuity, the insurance company guarantees a fixed interest rate for a specified period, which provides the annuity holder with a predictable stream of income. This means that the value of the annuity will grow at the guaranteed interest rate, and the annuitant will receive a set payout amount during the annuity’s payout phase.
In contrast, index-linked annuities (option B) are tied to the performance of a financial index and do not provide a guaranteed minimum interest rate. Modifiable annuities (option C) do not represent a recognized category of annuities, and option D is not accurate because only option A (fixed annuities) includes a guaranteed minimum interest rate.
What further qualifications are required before a life and health insurance advisor may sell variable annuities?
- A. Risk manager with certification
- B. A licensed insurance advisor
- C. Securities license
- D. Join in on claims
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Before a life and health insurance advisor may sell variable annuities, they typically need to obtain a securities license. Variable annuities are considered securities products because their value is tied to the performance of investment sub-accounts within the annuity. Therefore, individuals who want to sell variable annuities must often hold a securities license, such as the Series 6 or Series 7 license in the United States, which are issued by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA).
Options A, B, and D do not represent the specific qualification required for selling variable annuities, which is the securities license (option C).
The recipient of a life insurance policy has the choice to negotiate with the life insurance company to turn a death benefit payment into an annuity. The drawback of this payout strategy is:
- A. The cash is taxed
- B. Payout takes some time
- C. Making a withdrawal costs money
- D. All of the aforementioned
The correct answer is D. Explanation: When the recipient of a life insurance policy chooses to turn a death benefit payment into an annuity, there can be several drawbacks, which are represented by the options listed:
A. The cash received through the annuity may be subject to taxation, depending on the circumstances and the specific tax laws in the recipient’s jurisdiction.
B. Payout through an annuity can take some time, as annuities typically provide periodic payments over a set period or for life, rather than a lump-sum payment.
C. Making a withdrawal or annuitizing the death benefit to receive periodic payments may come with fees and costs, which can reduce the overall amount the recipient receives.
Therefore, all of these drawbacks may apply when choosing the annuity payout strategy for a life insurance death benefit.
Withdrawals from a life insurance policy’s cash value are typically not subject to taxes up until:
- A. The insured turns 65.
- B. The amount in cash exceeds $10,000.
- C. The insured revokes the insurance.
- D. The cash value of the policy is greater than the sum of all premium payments.
The correct answer is D. Explanation: Withdrawals from a life insurance policy’s cash value are generally not subject to taxes up until the point when the cash value of the policy exceeds the total amount of premiums paid into the policy. This is often referred to as the “cost basis” of the policy. Once the cash value exceeds the total premiums paid, any further withdrawals may be subject to taxation. This is because the gains in the policy (the amount over and above the total premiums paid) are considered taxable income.
Options A, B, and C do not represent the typical trigger for taxation of withdrawals from a life insurance policy’s cash value. Instead, it is the policy’s cash value exceeding the total premiums paid that is the primary factor in determining when taxation may apply.
Which sorts of payments to beneficiaries are subject to tax obligations under the IRS?
- A. Base insurance benefit
- B. Base policy benefit plus interest-related gains
- C. Gains from interest
- D. None of the above
The correct answer is C. Explanation: Payments to beneficiaries from a life insurance policy are generally not subject to income tax. However, any gains or interest-related earnings that have accrued within the policy and are paid out to beneficiaries may be subject to taxation. These gains are typically considered taxable income to the beneficiary, and they may be subject to both federal and, in some cases, state income taxes.
Option A (base insurance benefit) and option B (base policy benefit plus interest-related gains) typically represent the portion of the life insurance proceeds that are not subject to income tax. The tax obligation usually applies only to any interest or gains that have been earned within the policy.
The sum of money that a company pays to an insurer to cover all or a portion of a worker’s health insurance costs is:
- A. Excisable
- B. Exempt from tax
- C. Up to $10,000 is taxable
- D. Up to $25,000 is taxable
The correct answer is B. Explanation: The sum of money that a company pays to an insurer to cover all or a portion of a worker’s health insurance costs is typically exempt from taxation. This contribution by the employer toward an employee’s health insurance premium is generally considered a tax-exempt fringe benefit. It is not counted as taxable income for the employee. This tax exemption is a significant aspect of employer-sponsored health insurance coverage in many countries, including the United States, where it is governed by tax regulations.
Options A, C, and D do not accurately represent the standard tax treatment of employer contributions to health insurance premiums. Instead, such contributions are typically considered tax-exempt.
Health Reimbursement Accounts (HRAs) are not taxed if they are entirely funded by the employer AND _ ?
- A. Employees are covered by the MEC (minimum essential coverage)
- B. No more than $1200 per year.
- C. It is combined with a PPO insurance policy
- D. Complements an HMO insurance policy
The correct answer is A. Explanation: Health Reimbursement Accounts (HRAs) are not taxed if they are entirely funded by the employer and employees are covered by the Minimum Essential Coverage (MEC). MEC is a term used in the context of the Affordable Care Act (ACA) and refers to health coverage that meets the minimum requirements set by the ACA. If employees have MEC, the employer’s contributions to an HRA are typically not considered taxable income for the employees.
Options B, C, and D do not represent the typical criteria for the tax treatment of HRAs. The key factor for tax-free HRAs is the combination of employer funding and employees having MEC.
Which of the following provides exact compensation figures for various medical services?
- A. Insurance certificate
- B. Coverage waiver
- C. Benefits Schedule
- D. Plan Description Summary
The correct answer is C. Explanation: A Benefits Schedule is a document that provides exact compensation figures for various medical services covered by an insurance plan. It outlines the details of what the insurance plan will pay for specific medical procedures, treatments, or services. This document helps policyholders and healthcare providers understand how much will be covered by the insurance plan and how much the policyholder may need to pay out of pocket.
Options A, B, and D refer to different types of documents related to insurance, but they do not specifically provide exact compensation figures for medical services like a Benefits Schedule does.
Regarding the connection between an insurance agent and, the phrase “Expressed authority” signifies:
- A. The insurance agent seems to be able to take action on behalf of a client or customer
- B. A client or customer has expressly authorized an insurance agent to operate on his or her behalf through an oral or written agreement
- C. In order to carry out the client’s expressed authority, the insurance agent has the requisite power
- D. None of the above
The correct answer is B. Explanation: “Expressed authority” in the context of the connection between an insurance agent and a client or customer signifies that the client or customer has given explicit and clear authorization to the insurance agent to act on their behalf. This authorization can be conveyed through an oral or written agreement where the client expressly permits the agent to carry out specific actions or tasks related to insurance matters.
Option A is not as specific as option B in terms of requiring explicit authorization. Option C describes the agent’s ability to carry out the client’s expressed authority but doesn’t focus on the client’s authorization itself.
A general insurance agency’s main objective is:
- A. Selling insurance-related goods to insurance agents
- B. To collect insurance holders’ premiums
- C. To strictly control how insurance agents and their clients communicate
- D. To end disagreements between beneficiaries and policyholders
The correct answer is A. Explanation: A general insurance agency typically acts as an intermediary between insurance companies and insurance agents. Its primary objective is to distribute insurance products and services to insurance agents who, in turn, sell these products to policyholders or clients. General insurance agencies may offer a range of insurance-related goods, such as policies from multiple insurance companies, training and support for agents, marketing materials, and administrative services to assist agents in their sales efforts.
Options B, C, and D do not accurately represent the primary objective of a general insurance agency, which is primarily focused on facilitating the distribution of insurance products to insurance agents.
Before advising clients on insurance issues, what kind of insurance coverage is advised by insurance agents?
- A. Stop-loss
- B. Mistakes and omissions
- C. Key-man
- D. General responsibility
The correct answer is B. Explanation: Before advising clients on insurance issues, insurance agents are often advised to have Errors and Omissions (E&O) insurance coverage. E&O insurance is designed to protect insurance professionals, including agents and brokers, from claims or lawsuits that may arise due to errors, omissions, or mistakes in their professional services or advice. It provides financial protection in case a client alleges that the agent’s advice or actions led to financial losses or other damages.
While other types of insurance, such as stop-loss, key-man, and general liability insurance, may be relevant in various business contexts, E&O insurance is specifically tailored to the risks associated with providing insurance advice and services.